Allow infinite acceleration/speed on one axis

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9 years 9 months ago #86270 by tommylight
Here is a file i did, but i had to cut it since it was 2.1MB.
Give it a try, although i use the 0-1 value for the PWM. At least you can see if you get smooth movement.

File Attachment:

File Name: gjyshi_cliped.ngc
File Size:873.16 KB

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9 years 9 months ago #86281 by Stunning_Rob
Tommy,

Thanks for the file, I'll run it this evening and see how it goes. Will report back with an update.

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9 years 9 months ago #86292 by Todd Zuercher
Rob, your 0.3mm test g-code runs fine in my simulation at up to about F3000. Looking like the fault may lie in your machine configuration.

A quick glance at your ini file shows that your max velocity is set to 7mm/s and the acceleration is only 5mm/s~2. Both seem rather lethargic to my eye. (I am used to seeing numbers 10-30 times those or more) Are you sure that your machine has to move that slowly?

But I kind of doubt that is the real source of the problem.

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9 years 9 months ago #86294 by Todd Zuercher
Here is a halscope shot of your test file ran in the sim.

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9 years 9 months ago #86300 by Stunning_Rob
Todd,

I'm just a small time hobby machinist making things out of wood for friends and family. I used to run faster ('faster' for me anyway....maybe 1,500mm/min and increased accelerations to match) but I kept ruining bearings on my X axis. I chalked this up to the weight of the Z-Axis riding on the X-axis rails, and that the larger forces imposed by the increased acceleration were probably causing 'some' amount of damage. How much I'm not sure, but I can run my little machine about a year between bearing changes when using a max around 420mm/min but I start getting (what I call) "bearing drag" after about 2 months at the higher speeds. The plastic at the ends of the bearings starts tearing apart, so that when moving in one direction the bits of plastic would ride up into the bearing, then when moving the other direction the axis had to overcome the force to get past it and the axis would 'jump' about 1mm resulting in all kinds of horrible looking things any time the axis reversed direction. Long story short, for my poor man's machining budget it doesn't bother me if it takes 10x as long to finish something, my machine utilization rate is probably about 5% over the course of a year anyway. But not to worry -> I'm saving up my pennies for one of these fancy metal milling machines with those (crazy!) velocity rates. I will be there one day...

Anyway, back to our discussion:

Will it tell you what the velocity is dropping to when it executes that 2nd y-move code (with Q20)? I see a sharp point there where it looks like velocity drops considerably and then shoots back up. Based on the rest of the graph that looks like the v=0 point. If that is actually what's happening in your simulator then that would be somewhat similar to how mine keeps dropping off somewhat near the same point.

If I was good with halscope we could probably figure out if they were dropping off at precisely the same time. The remainder of the difference in your velocity graph and mine could then be summed up in acceleration rates most likely. My graph takes the long slow journey towards velocity = 0 because my acceleration values are so low. In your simulated mode your accel values are probably >>> greater than mine, hence the reason yours can drop to zero and recover within such a short time.

It could be my eyes playing tricks on me, but your graph appears to follow the same acceleration rate (linear velocity increase) during "movement start" and the quick (what I am calling) v=0 point of your graph, although the deceleration rate at the v=0 point is not the same as your ending deceleration rate; potentially interesting but for another discussion.

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